In ROMANS 3:10 of this Pauline epistle we read:
As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one. This is the conclusion he is working towards in his examination of humanity and all of its various aspects: from the pagan idolaters (ROM 1:21-32), to the Gentile moralizers (ROM 2:1-16), to the Hebrew ‘Judaizers’ (ROM 2:17-24) – all of us are equally blameworthy of sin and have a sinful nature; there is no one, based upon their own merit or code of moral conduct (or lack thereof) that can stand righteous before the LORD God.
It states elsewhere in Scripture:
JAMES 2:10
For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.
This sounds not only harsh, but unfair doesn’t it? Why would we be considered “guilty of all”, if we have kept ALL the Law . . . but fail only in one instance?~~ What I believe James is pointing out is that by committing a single, solitary sin during the course of a (theoretically) Law-abiding life, this reveals that we possess a sinful nature, which is a nature capable of sinning in any capacity.
The potential of committing each and every sin resides within the being of any sinful person – all that is necessary is time and availability for such a depraved nature to prove itself overtly “guilty of all”.
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